DNA/RNA Introduction Quiz

DNA/RNA Intro Quiz

1. Which of the following is NOT one of the bases in a DNA molecule?

a. adenine

b. cytosine

c. uracil

d. thymine

e. guanine

2. Cytosine will form a base pair only with:

a. cytosine

b. adenine

c. thymine

d. uracil

e. guanine

3. What is a nucleotide?

a. a phosphate, five-carbon sugar, and a nitrogen base

b. a group of linked amino acids

c. one half of a DNA molecule

d. a protein, a sugar, and a phosphate

e. a phosphate, a six-carbon sugar, and a nitrogen base

4. The weak bonds between complementary nitrogen bases involve:

a. RNA

b. DNA

c. Hydrogen

d. five-carbon sugars

e. sulfur

5. DNA assumes a form termed what?

a. a triple-linked chain

b. a six sided figure

c. a step ladder

d. a double helix

e. a triple helix

6. DNA may be described functionally as:

a. an enzyme

b. a source for RNA production

c. an arrangement of mRNA molecules

d. a sink for disposal of RNA

e. a protein

7. Where is the messenger RNA synthesized in a cell?

a. nucleus

b. mitochondria

c. ribosome

d. endoplasmic reticulum

e. golgi body

8. Which of the following correctly describes messenger RNA?

a. single stranded

b. uracil replaces thymine

c. many sugar to phosphate bonds occur

d. the ribose sugar has an oxygen on the #2 carbon

e. all of the above

9. Which of the following are correct types of RNA?

a. mRNA

b. qRNA

c. tRNA

d. a and c

e. all of the above

10. The directions used in protein synthesis are provided by:

a. mRNA

b. centromere

c. RNA in the ribosomes

d. tRNA

e. qRNA

11. Given the following DNA strand, which of the following is its complementary mRNA?

G G A C T G A T T

(A) C C T G A C T A A

(B) C C U G A C U A A

(C) G G A C T G A T T

(D) T T A G T C A G G

12. The sugar in RNA is _____, the sugar in DNA is _______

(A) deoxyribose, ribose

(B) ribose, deoxyribose

(C) ribose, phosphate

(D) ribose, uracil

13. A gene is:

(A) a segment of DNA that codes for a protein

(B) a set of homologous chromosomes

(C) a molecule within DNA

(D) a type of pants

14. The DNA side strands are made of alternating

(A) phosphates and sugars

(B) adenine and thymine

(C) cytosine and guanine

(D) adenine and guanine

15. Uracil always pairs with

(A) Adenine

(B) Thymine

(C) Guanine

(D) Cytosine

Genetics II Ch 12 - Take Home Quiz

1. Which refers to turning a chromosome segment around 180º and rejoining it to the original chromosome?
A. translocation
B. monosomy
C. duplication
D. deletion
E. inversion

2. Which statement is NOT true about X-linked characteristics?
A. More males than females are affected.
B. Females can be carriers of the gene without showing it.
C. If a female has the characteristic, all her sons will show it.
D. The characteristic often skips a generation, from a woman's father to her son.
E. Males can have two copies of the alleles for the trait, but females can have only one.

3. A human male has ____ chromosomes with ____ sex chromosomes.
A. 46, XY
B. 48, XY
C. 48, XX
D. 48, YY
E. 46, XX

4. Which refers to the loss of a complete chromosome?
A. translocation
B. inversion
C. monosomy
D. deletion
E. duplication

5. Generally, it is not possible to determine whether nondisjunction failed to occur in oogenesis or spermatogenesis. However, it is possible to assert that _________resulted in nondisjunction in __________.
A. XYY; spermatogenesis
B. XO; oogenesis
C. XXX; oogenesis
D. XXY; oogenesis
E. XXY; spermatogenesis

6. Which of these terms would be equivalent to 3n chromosomes?
A. trisomy
B. diploidy
C. triploidy
D. tetraploidy
E. tetrasomy

7. Which of the following is NOT true about a karyotype?
A. Banding patterns are used in pairing chromosomes.
B. Chromosome pairs are assorted by both size and shape.
C. Homologous chromosomes are paired.
D. Sex chromosomes are identified separately from autosomes.
E. Chromosome pairs are numbered from smallest to largest.

8. "Polyploid" is a term that refers to
A. having 2 sets (2N) of chromosomes.
B. None of these
C. having many expressions of the same gene.
D. having 3 or more sets of chromosomes (3N, 4N, etc)
E. having multiple sex cell available for fertilization.

9. Women with X-linked disorders always pass the genes for the disorder to ______, while men with X-linked disorders always pass the genes for the disorder to _______.
A. both their daughters and sons; only their daughters
B. both their daughters and sons; only their sons
C. their sons, their daughters
D. only their daughters; only their daughters
E. both their daughters and sons; their daughters and sons

10. Which statement is NOT true about Down syndrome?
A. It is associated with chromosomal nondisjunction in meiosis.
B. Greatly increased incidence occurs with fathers over age 35.
C. It is caused by a third copy of chromosome 21.
D. Characteristics include mental retardation and extra eyelid folds.
E. Affected individuals have a considerably shortened life expectancy.

11. Which refers to the addition of an extra segment of a chromosome?
A. monosomy
B. duplication
C. deletion
D. inversion
E. translocation

12. What kind of mutation causes trisomy 21 or Down syndrome?
A. change in the base sequence of DNA in a single gene
B. change in the number of chromosomes
C. duplication of an allele with change in the base sequence of one of the copies
D. recombination of genetic information between unpaired chromosomes
E. change in the arrangement of alleles on a chromosome

13. Which refers to the movement of a piece of one chromosome to another nonhomologous chromosome?
A. inversion
B. monosomy
C. deletion
D. translocation
E. duplication

14. If a woman is a carrier for the color-blind recessive allele and her husband is normal, what are their chances that a son will be color-blind?
A. None since he will also be just a carrier.
B. 50% since the mother is the only carrier.
C. None since the father is normal.
D. 100% because the mother has the gene.
E. 25% because the mother is a hybrid.

15. Consider the case of a lethal recessive gene located on the nonhomologous part of the human X-chromosome; it is therefore sex-linked. Its effect is to prevent the full development of the embryo, which is therefore reabsorbed at an early stage. Beginning with a female who carries this gene in a heterozygous state, what proportion of the offspring will be female?
A. one-half
B. all, because the lethal recessive gene will express itself in the absence of any genes on the short Y-arm for the XY male embryos
C. two-thirds
D. No offspring will be produced at all.
E. three-fourths

16. Which refers to the loss of a portion of a chromosome?
A. duplication
B. inversion
C. translocation
D. monosomy
E. deletion

17. When homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, this is termed
A. RFLP.
B. disjunction.
C. nondisjunction.
D. cross-over.
E. linked genes.

18. A genetic disorder (not counting disjunctions) is more likely to be common in the population if it
A. All of the choices would increase the survival of a deleterious gene.
B. is not sex-linked if recessive.
C. is recessive.
D. bestows some benefit in a heterozygous state.
E. does not manifest itself until after reproductive age has passed.

Genetics I Ch 11 - Take Home Quiz

1. Which of the statements below is/are true regarding the trait of interest in the above pedigree?
A. All of these statements are true.
B. If it is autosomal recessive, all the children of the affected daughter would be affected as well.
C. If it is X-linked dominant, the daughter of the affected son would also be affected.
D. It is likely autosomal dominant, the affected individuals would be heterozygous.
E. If it is X-linked recessive, all the children of the affected daughter would be affected.

2. According to the pedigree diagrammed above the original parents of this family tree had
A. 2 daughters and 1 son
B. None of these is correct
C. 3 daughters and 2 sons
D. 1 daughter and 2 sons
E. 2 daughters and 3 sons

3. A classical example of multiple alleles is
A. albinism in humans and animals.
B. pink flowers in heterozygous snapdragons.
C. ABO blood types in humans.
D. height in garden peas.
E. coat color spotting in cattle.

4. The water buttercup produces thin leaves underwater, but those same tissues will produce broad leaves above the water. Individuals in the 1800's (when hunger and childhood diseases were common) averaged slightly over five feet tall, but their offspring in the 1900's were substantially taller on the average. This reflects the influence of
A. gene linkage.
B. genotype having no relationship to phenotype.
C. epistasis.
D. environmental factors on the ability of genes to express themselves.
E. polygenic inheritance.

5. Which type of inheritance results in continuous variation often a bell-shaped curve–because genes at many loci are involved?
A. polygenic
B. autosomal dominant
C. sex-influenced
D. autosomal recessive
E. X-linked

6. If a human who is a tongue roller (T) and has unattached ear lobes (E) marries a person who cannot roll their tongue and has attached earlobes, could they produce an offspring that was also a non-tongue roller with attached earlobes? What would be the genotype of the first parent? the second parent?
A. yes: TTEe; ttee
B. yes; TtEe; ttee
C. unable to determine from the information given
D. yes; TtEE; ttEe
E. no; TTEE; ttee

7. The location on a chromosome where a particular gene is located is known as the:
A. diploid
B. allele
C. locus
D. autosome
E. dihybrid

8. In pea plants, the gene for round seed (R) is dominant, and wrinkled seeds (r) are recessive. The endosperm of the pea is also either starchy, a dominant gene (S), or waxy (s). What can be said of a fully heterozygous (or dihybrid) cross?
A. It is impossible to secure offspring that are homozygous for one dominant gene such as round seed and homozygous recessive for the other recessive waxy gene.
B. It is impossible to secure offspring that are homozygous for both dominant genes.
C. All of these choices are impossible combinations in a dihybrid cross.
D. It is impossible to secure offspring that are homozygous for both recessive genes.
E. All of these choices are possible combinations in a dihybrid cross.

9. A gene interaction in which a pair of recessive genes at one locus prevents expression of a dominant allele at another locus is called
A. epistasis.
B. polygenic inheritance.
C. pleiotropy.
D. complete dominance.
E. incomplete dominance.

10. An individual with blood type A marries an individual with blood type B. What blood types could their offspring exhibit?
A. AB
B. all of these are possible
C. A
D. B
E. O

11. The ability to roll the edges of the tongue upward in a U-shape has been considered to be an inherited ability. The standard assumption is that tongue-rolling is a dominant allele at a single gene locus. Which of the following would cast doubt on this assumption?
A. Behaviors are not inherited, only structures are inherited.
B. A student who can roll his tongue has a mother and father, both of whom cannot.
C. A student who cannot roll his tongue has a mother and father, both of whom can.
D. A teacher reports that after testing her class on the ability to roll their tongue, with very little effort the non-tongue-rollers can learn to also roll their tongues.
E. The non-tongue rollers who learn to roll their tongues and the student who can roll his tongue while his parents cannot are two situations that cast doubt on the heritability issue. The situation where a student cannot roll his tongue while his parents can is inconclusive.

12. A classical example of incomplete dominance is
A. coat color in rabbits.
B. height in garden peas.
C. albinism in humans and animals.
D. pink flowers in heterozygous snapdragons.
E. ABO blood groups in humans.

13. If an individual with a dominant phenotype is crossed with an individual with a recessive phenotype, 4 of their 9 offspring show the recessive phenotype. What is the genotype of the first parent?
A. AA
B. Aa
C. The answer cannot be determined from this information.
D. aa
E. AA or Aa

14. The F2 offspring of a monohybrid cross would show the genotype(s)
A. Aa and aa.
B. AA and Aa.
C. AA only.
D. Aa only.
E. AA, Aa, and aa.

15. In which kind of cross would you expect to find a ratio of 9:3:3:1 among the F2 offspring?
A. monohybrid cross
B. dihybrid cross
C. multiple allele cross
D. testcross
E. polygenic cross

16. If you had two guinea pigs of opposite sex, both homozygous, one black and one brown, but you didn't know which was the dominant characteristic, how would you find out the dominant color?
A. None of the choices are correct.
B. Mate them together, then mate their offspring to see what color the grandchildren are--the other color will be the dominant color.
C. Mate them together , then mate their offspring to see what color the grandchildren are--that will be the dominant color.
D. Mate them together and see what color the offspring are--that will be the dominant color.
E. Mate them together and see what color the offspring are--the other will be the dominant color.

17. In a pedigree chart, which is correct?
A. Offspring are represented by triangles.
B. All of these are true.
C. A line between a circle and a square represents a mating.
D. A carrier with a normal phenotype is represented by a black circle or square.
E. Circles = males; squares = females.

18. Which of the following crosses would always result in offspring that only display the dominant phenotype?
A. Tt x Tt
B. TT x TT
C. both TT x tt and TT x TT
D. TT x tt
E. Tt x Tt

19. In the use of a Punnett square for genetic results of crossing individuals
A. All of the choices are correct.
B. the results show the offspring's expected genotypes.
C. all different kinds of eggs are lined up either horizontally or vertically.
D. all different kinds of sperm are lined up either horizontally or vertically.
E. every possible allele combination is placed within the square.

20. Following the type of inheritance illustrated in this pedigree, if one of the affected children (who is heterozygous) in the second generation were to marry an unaffected spouse, what is the probability their first child will be affected?
A. 100%
B. Not enough information to tell.
C. 1 out of 4
D. 3 out of 4
E. 1 out of 2

Photosynthesis Pract Questions

1. Which statement is NOT true about the cyclic electron pathway?
A. It produces NADPH.
B. It produces ATP.
C. Electrons lost from Photosystem I eventually return to Photosystem I.
D. It involves Photosystem I.
E. Electrons from Photosystem I go through an electron transport chain.

2. The Calvin cycle requires all of the following except _____________ to occur.
A. light
B. ribulose bi-phosphate
C. RuBP carboxylase
D. carbon dioxide
E. ATP, NADPH

3. What organisms are capable of photosynthesis?
A. plants only
B. plants and some bacteria only
C. plants, algae and fungi
D. plants, algae, and some bacteria
E. plants and algae only

4. Which would be a CAM plant?
A. rice
B. corn
C. cactus
D. oak tree
E. wheat

5. When the stomata in a leaf close, then
A. C₃ plants carry on photorespiration, using O₂ and producing PGA and CO₂.
B. carbon dioxide in the air spaces in the leaf decreases.
C. All choices are correct
D. all photosystems can continue to work.
E. oxygen in the air spaces in the leaf increases.

6. Which statement is NOT true about the noncyclic electron pathway?
A. It produces carbohydrates through carbon dioxide fixation.
B. It produces NADPH.
C. Electrons are boosted to higher energy level in Photosystem I.
D. It produces ATP.
E. Sunlight excites electrons in Photosystem II.

7. What are the products of photosynthesis?
A. NAD and glucose
B. water and oxygen
C. carbohydrate and water
D. water and carbon dioxide
E. oxygen and carbohydrate

8. What is not true of chlorophyll and other accessory pigments in plants?
A. Chlorophyll provides electrons that will be used to produce ATP.
B. Chlorophyll is packed in thylakoid membranes.
C. Chlorophyll provides the enzymes needed to produce carbohydrates.
D. Plant pigments absorb solar energy.
E. Chlorophyll absorbs light of specific wavelengths.

9. Which of these is NOT a major photosynthetic pigment in plants?
A. chlorophyll c
B. chlorophyll b
C. carotenoid pigments
D. All of these are major plant pigments
E. chlorophyll a

10. Although it is not possible to be exact about when cyanobacteria first appeared on earth, most scientists agree that about two billion years ago, they expanded rapidly and raised the oxygen in the earth's atmosphere to present levels in about 500 million years. This appearance of oxygen and the beginning of aerobic life was made possible by the appearance of
A. fermentation.
B. Photosystem II.
C. the nucleus.
D. ATP hydrolysis.
E. Photosystem I.

11. The major enzyme that catalyzes the reduction of carbon dioxide is called
A. PEP carboxylase (PEPcase).
B. carbonic anhydrase
C. ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase (rubisco).
D. glyceraldehyde-3-phospate (G3P).
E. ATPase

12. Which is most closely associated with the Calvin cycle?
A. ATP production
B. oxygen production
C. removal of electrons from water for passage through an electron transport system
D. carbon dioxide fixation
E. carbon dioxide production

13. Photorespiration is a form of
A. release of carbon dioxide in C₄ plants.
B. fixation of carbon dioxide in C₃ plants.
C. release of carbon dioxide in C₃ plants.
D. None of the above
E. fixation of carbon dioxide in C₄ plants.

14. The end product of the Calvin cycle is
A. ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP).
B. glyceraldehyde-3-phospate (G3P).
C. carbon dioxide.
D. ATP.
E. PEP carboxylase (PEPcase).

15. C₄ plants
A. have a net photosynthetic rate two to three times that of C₃ plants.
B. All of these are correct
C. are found in hot dry climates.
D. store carbon dioxide temporarily as oxaloacetate.
E. Lose less carbon to photorespiration

16. Which statement is NOT true about C₃ and C₄ plants?
A. C₃ plants fix CO₂ in the mesophyll cells.
B. C₃ plants make glucose in the bundle sheath cells.
C. C₄ plants contain chloroplasts in their mesophyll cells.
D. The first CO₂ fixation product in a C₄ plant is oxaloacetate.
E. C₃ plants are more successful in mild climates than C₄ plants.

17. Protons (H⁺) accumulate in the thylakoid space during electron transport between photosystems I and II. The excess of protons in the thylakoid space
A. enters the photorespiration pathway.
B. converts NADP to NADPH and generates ATP in the process.
C. moves from the thylakoid space to the stroma through an ATP synthase complex channel that generates ATP.
D. raises the pH of the space until the processes stop.
E. is small enough to diffuse back out through the lipid bilayer.

18. G3P (glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate) is used by plants for all of the following EXCEPT the formation of
A. fatty acids.
B. sucrose.
C. oxygen.
D. amino acids.
E. starches

19. Which is NOT true about photosynthesis?
A. Both cyclic and noncyclic photophosphorylation involve and electron transport chain.
B. The cyclic system is used when there is insufficient NADP+ present to absorb electrons in plant cells.
C. In noncyclic photophosphorylation, water is split and oxygen is released.
D. Photosystem II makes noncyclic photophosphorylation more efficient than does cyclic photophosphorylation.
E. More carbohydrate is produced during cyclic photophosphorylation than during noncyclic photophosphorylation.

20. The action spectrum of photosynthesis shows a high light absorption for violet/blue and orange/red and a low absorption for green/yellow. If we were to set up an experiment where narrow bands of unicolored light were shown on an aquatic plant such as Elodea, and we counted the number of bubbles of oxygen produced as an indicator of photosynthetic rate, how would the graph appear?
A. a descending line because ultra-violet has more energy than infra-red
B. just like the action spectrum with peaks at violet/blue and orange/red and a trough at yellow/green
C. perfectly flat because many wavelengths are used by chlorophyll
D. There is no way to guess without actually running the experiment.
E. exactly inverted from the action spectrum with a peak for yellow/green

21. Which statement is NOT true about photosystems?
A. Photosystem I passes electrons on to Photosystem II.
B. Each photosystem contains numerous pigment molecules that act as antennas to capture light.
C. Electrons in the reaction center molecule are excited by absorbed solar energy and are passed along to an acceptor molecule.
D. Photosystem II contains a reaction center molecule that loses electrons which are then replaced by electrons from water.
E. Photosystem I receives electrons from photosystem II

     

22. Reduced carbon dioxide is one of the endproducts shown in diagram. The other end product, labeled "b" must be
A. NADPH
B. oxygen gas
C. water
D. ATP
E. more carbon dioxide

23. Which statement is NOT true of the set of reactions labeled "d"?
A. They are referred to as the Calvin Cycle.
B. The process must occur in the presence of light.
C. Most carbon is converted into RuBP.
D. The process takes place in the stroma.
E. Carbon dioxide is "fixed" during the process.

24. The first event in the Calvin cycle is the attachment of carbon dioxide to the five-carbon RuBP molecule, which
A. occurs in the stroma of the chloroplasst
B. forms a six-carbon molecule that immediately breaks down into two three-carbon PGA molecules.
C. decreases cell carbon dioxide levels, which increases the diffusion gradient.
D. is a reaction assisted by large quantities of RuBP carboxylase enzyme.
E. All of the choices are correct.

25. If the Calvin cycle uses three molecules of CO₂ to produce six molecules of G3P (glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate), but only one G3P molecule is used to form a carbohydrate molecule, what happens to the other carbons that were taken in?
A. The remaining five G3P molecules are used to reduce CO₂.
B. Any unused CO₂ is released into the environment.
C. The remaining carbon is used to make more sugars.
D. The other five G3P molecules are used to regenerate more RuBP.
E. Any unused G3P molecule is converted and stored as starch.

26. Photosynthetic pigments
A. reflect certain wavelengths of light
B. absorb specific wavelengths of light in their absorption spectra.
C. include chlorophyll a, b, and the carotenoids.
D. All of the choices are correct.
E. can have their absorption spectra analyzed using a spectrophotometer.

27. Why are plants green?
A. They absorb only green wavelengths of light.
B. They reflect green wavelengths of light.
C. They reflect yellow and blue wavelengths of light.
D. They reflect nearly all wavelengths of light.
E. They absorb only yellow and blue wavelengths of light.

1. A

2. A

3. D

4. C

5. C

6. A

7. E

8. C

9. A

10. B

11. C

12. D

13. C

14. B

15. B

16. B

17. C

18. C

19. E

20. B

21. A

22. B

23. B

24. E

25. D

26. D

27. B

Respiration Practice Questions

1. The critical factor driving yeasts to use fermentation to metabolize sugar is
A. lack of any enzymes.
B. that yeast is intolerant to alcohol.
C. inability to carry on glycolysis.
D. that yeasts can secure 38 ATP molecules from fermentation.
E. lack of oxygen.

2. Which of the following molecules can be broken down into acetyl and enter the citric acid cycle?
A. amino acids
B. proteins
C. fatty acids
D. pyruvate
E. all of the choices are correct

3. Which process must occur before fermentation?
A. fermentation
B. glycolysis
C. the electron transport system
D. the citric acid cycle
E. the preparatory reaction

4. One turn of the citric acid cycle produces
A. 3 NADH, 1 FADH₂, 1 ATP.
B. 3 NADH, 2 FADH₂, 1 ATP.
C. 2 NADH, 2 FADH₂, 2 ATP.
D. 3 NADH, 1 FADH₂, 2 ATP.
E. 1 NADH, 3 FADH₂, 2 ATP.

5. Which of these processes occurs in the cytosol?
A. the citric acid cycle
B. chemiosmosis
C. glycolysis
D. the electron transport system
E. the preparation of pyruvate

6. The large number of ATPs produced are
A. inside the mitochondria matrix and diffuse out through the membrane.
B. outside the mitochondria and diffuse in through the membrane.
C. inside the mitochondria matrix and leave through a channel protein.
D. outside the mitochondria and enter through a channel protein.
E. embedded in the cristae membranes and diffuse both directions.

7. Which process converts pyruvate to acetyl-CoA?
A. the preparatory reaction
B. fermentation
C. glycolysis
D. the electron transport system
E. the citric acid cycle

8. Why would an organism utilize fermentation if it was wasteful of the energy in food molecules and posed the threat of killing itself with high levels of toxic alcohol?
A. The organism can survive short spells of anaerobic conditions and maintain growth and reproduction.
B. None of the choices is an advantage; anaerobes only survive where aerobes cannot.
C. All of the choices are advantages.
D. Fermentation can provide a rapid burst of ATP since it does not have to go through the full breakdown cycle.
E. If glucose levels are not high, there may be time to disperse the alcohol "waste."

9. The preparatory reaction breaks
A. pyruvates into glucose.
B. pyruvates into acetyl-CoA and carbon dioxide.
C. pyruvates into acetyl-CoA and water.
D. glucose into pyruvates.
E. acetyl CoA into pyruvates and carbon dioxide.

10. Some bacteria are strict aerobes and others are strict anaerobes. Some bacteria, however, are facultative anaerobes and can live with or without oxygen. If given the choice of using oxygen or not, which should a facultative anaerobe perform?
A. Use oxygen because aerobic metabolism is easier.
B. None of these is correct.
C. It doesn't matter; both processes will produce the same results.
D. Not use oxygen since it is a facultative anaerobe, it doesn't tolerate oxygen well.
E. Use oxygen since aerobic metabolism provides more ATP per molecule of carbohydrate broken down than anaerobic metabolism.

11. The correct sequence for aerobic metabolic breakdown of glucose is
A. preparatory reaction--glycolysis--electron transport--citric acid cycle
B. electron transport system--citric acid cycle--preparatory reaction--glycolysis
C. light reactions--electron replacement--ATP production--calvin cycle
D. glycolysis--citric acid cycle--electron transport system--preparatory reaction
E. glycolysis--preparatory reaction--cirtric acid cycle--electron transport system

12. The first process in breaking down glucose is
A. the citric acid cycle.
B. the electron transport system.
C. the preparatory reaction.
D. fermentation.
E. glycolysis.

13. Which process produces both NADH and FADH₂?
A. the citric acid cycle
B. the preparatory reaction
C. fermentation
D. glycolysis
E. the electron transport system

14. For fatty acids to be able to enter the pathways of cellular respiration, they must be
A. combined with ATP.
B. combined with glycerol.
C. deaminated.
D. broken into acetyl groups.
E. be converted into five-carbon sugars.

15. The primary energy carrier between the citric acid cycle and the electron transport system is
A. NADH.
B. ADP.
C. H₂O.
D. FADH₂.
E. CO₂.

16. What important process takes place in the area labeled "d"?
A. The reactions of the citric acid cycle.
B. The production of reduced coenzymes for the powering of the electron transport chain
C. The utilization of oxygen
D. The accumulation of protons creating an electrochemical gradient
E. The production of water.

17. The carbon dioxide we exhale is produced in
A. glycolysis.
B. lactate fermentation.
C. the Calvin cycle
D. the electron transport system.
E. the citric acid cycle.

18. Letter "a" is pointing to the location of the
A. citric acid cycle
B. calvin cycle
C. glycolysis reactions
D. generaton of NADH
E. electron transport chain

19. Which process involves chemiosmotic phosphorylation?
A. glycolysis
B. fermentation
C. the preparatory reaction
D. the electron transport system
E. the citric acid cycle

20. The electron transport system produces ______ATP from each NADH and/or _________ATP from each flavin mononucleotide entering the system.
A. 3: 2
B. 4: 3
C. 2: 4
D. 4: 2
E. 2: 3

21. Which is NOT an end product of eukaryotic cellular aerobic respiration?
A. carbon dioxide.
B. All of the choices are correct.
C. ATP.
D. oxygen
E. water.

22. The end product of glycolysis
A. is pyruvate in aerobic respiration.
B. nets the cell 2NADH
C. can form alcohol and/or lactate if fermentation occurs.
D. All of the choices are correct.
E. nets the cell 2 ATP.

23. About _____ of the energy in the glucose molecule is captured in ATP through the reactions of cellular respiration.
A. 57%
B. 39%
C. 12%
D. 84%
E. 26%

24. Which process produces alcohol or lactate?
A. glycolysis
B. fermentation
C. the citric acid cycle
D. the electron transport system
E. the preparatory reaction

25. The energy stored in 36 ATP molecules produced by aerobic respiration is 39 percent of the energy available in a six-carbon glucose and the other 61% of the glucose bond energy is lost. The respiration of an 18-carbon fatty acid produces 216 ATP. We can expect that
A. None of these statements is true.
B. the degradation of a fatty acid is totally unrelated to the citric acid cycle.
C. six times as much energy was stored in this molecule but also a similar proportion is lost.
D. because the molecules are so large, fats are an inefficient form of stored energy.
E. this respiration pathway must occur in some cell organelle besides the mitochondrion.

26. Acetyl-CoA is produced from
A. citric acid and CO₂.
B. citric acid and a coenzyme.
C. CO₂ and pyruvate.
D. ATP and pyruvate.
E. pyruvate and a coenzyme.

27. Complete oxidative breakdown of glucose results in ______ ATP molecules.
A. 32
B. 36
C. 4
D. 39
E. 2

28. Which process reduces molecular oxygen to water?
A. glycolysis
B. the preparatory reaction
C. the electron transport system
D. the citric acid cycle
E. fermentation

29. Which is NOT true of the citric acid cycle?
A. Occurs in the cristae of the mitochondria.
B. Produces 4 carbon dioxide molecules per glucose molecule.
C. Must occur twice for each glucose molecule metabolized.
D. Produces 2 ATP by substrate-level phosphorylation
E. Produces 6 NADH per glucose.

30. Which of these pairs of processes are anaerobic?
A. fermentation and the citric acid cycle
B. the citric acid cycle and the electron transport system
C. glycolysis and the citric acid cycle
D. fermentation and glycolysis
E. glycolysis and the electron transport system

31. Of the following processes, which does NOT require oxygen to occur?
A. electron transport system
B. citric acid cycle
C. glycolysis
D. preparatory
E. All of these require oxygen

1. E

2. E

3. B

4. A

5. C

6. C

7. A

8. C

9. B

10. E

11. E

12. E

13. A

14. D

15. A

16. D

17. E

18. E

19. D

20. A

21. D

22. D

23. B

24. B

25. C

26. E

27. B

28. C

29. A

30. D

31. C

Leaf Lab WS and Khan Videos

Leaf Lab WS
 - complete page 1 and #1 on page 2
 - also finish questions on page 4 and 5

Khan Academy Videos
 - all videos completed will count as extra credit

Resp and Photo Exam will be Thursday
 - Review sessions starting before and after school tomorrow (Tuesday)

Photosynth Quiz 1

Photosynthesis Quiz 1

1. Protons (H⁺) accumulate in the thylakoid space during electron transport between photosystems I and II. The excess of protons in the thylakoid space
A. raises the pH of the space until the processes stop.
B. is small enough to diffuse back out through the lipid bilayer.
C. moves from the thylakoid space to the stroma through an ATP synthase complex channel that generates ATP.
D. converts NADP to NADPH and generates ATP in the process.
E. enters the photorespiration pathway.

2. Which statement is NOT true about the noncyclic electron pathway?
A. It produces carbohydrates through carbon dioxide fixation.
B. It produces NADPH.
C. Electrons are boosted to higher energy level in Photosystem I.
D. It produces ATP.
E. Sunlight excites electrons in Photosystem II.

3. Which of these is NOT a major photosynthetic pigment in plants?
A. chlorophyll a
B. chlorophyll c
C. chlorophyll b
D. All of these are major plant pigments
E. carotenoid pigments

4. Which would be a CAM plant?
A. oak tree
B. corn
C. rice
D. wheat
E. cactus

5. G3P (glyceraldehyde 3 phosphate) is used by plants for all of the following EXCEPT the formation of
A. starches
B. oxygen.
C. sucrose.
D. fatty acids.
E. amino acids.

6. Why are plants green?
A. They absorb only green wavelengths of light.
B. They reflect green wavelengths of light.
C. They absorb only yellow and blue wavelengths of light.
D. They reflect nearly all wavelengths of light.
E. They reflect yellow and blue wavelengths of light.

7. Photosynthetic pigments
A. include chlorophyll a, b, and the carotenoids.
B. All of the choices are correct.
C. can have their absorption spectra analyzed using a spectrophotometer.
D. absorb specific wavelengths of light in their absorption spectra.
E. reflect certain wavelengths of light

8. The end product of the Calvin cycle is
A. carbon dioxide.
B. ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP).
C. glyceraldehyde-3-phospate (G3P).
D. PEP carboxylase (PEPcase).
E. ATP.

9. What are the products of photosynthesis?
A. oxygen and carbohydrate
B. NAD and glucose
C. carbohydrate and water
D. water and carbon dioxide
E. water and oxygen

10. If the Calvin cycle uses three molecules of CO₂ to produce six molecules of G3P (glyceraldehydes-3-phosphate), but only one G3P molecule is used to form a carbohydrate molecule, what happens to the other carbons that were taken in?
A. The other five G3P molecules are used to regenerate more RuBP.
B. The remaining five G3P molecules are used to reduce CO₂.
C. The remaining carbon is used to make more sugars.
D. Any unused G3P molecule is converted and stored as starch.
E. Any unused CO₂ is released into the environment.

11. Which statement is NOT true about C₃ and C₄ plants?
A. C₃ plants fix CO₂ in the mesophyll cells.
B. C₃ plants make glucose in the bundle sheath cells.
C. The first CO₂ fixation product in a C₄ plant is oxaloacetate.
D. C₃ plants are more successful in mild climates than C₄ plants.
E. C₄ plants contain chloroplasts in their mesophyll cells.

     

12. Reduced carbon dioxide is one of the endproducts shown in diagram. The other end product, labeled "b" must be
A. oxygen gas
B. water
C. more carbon dioxide
D. ATP
E. NADPH

13. Which statement is NOT true of the set of reactions labeled "d"?
A. The process must occur in the presence of light.
B. They are referred to as the Calvin Cycle.
C. The process takes place in the stroma.
D. Carbon dioxide is "fixed" during the process.
E. Most carbon is converted into RuBP.

14. Which is NOT true about photosynthesis?
A. More carbohydrate is produced during cyclic photophosphorylation than during noncyclic photophosphorylation.
B. In noncyclic photophosphorylation, water is split and oxygen is released.
C. The cyclic system is used when there is insufficient NADP+ present to absorb electrons in plant cells.
D. Both cyclic and noncyclic photophosphorylation involve and electron transport chain.
E. Photosystem II makes noncyclic photophosphorylation more efficient than does cyclic photophosphorylation.

15. Photorespiration is a form of
A. None of the above
B. release of carbon dioxide in C₄ plants.
C. fixation of carbon dioxide in C₃ plants.
D. release of carbon dioxide in C₃ plants.
E. fixation of carbon dioxide in C₄ plants.

16. Which statement is NOT true about the cyclic electron pathway?
A. Electrons lost from Photosystem I eventually return to Photosystem I.
B. It involves Photosystem I.
C. Electrons from Photosystem I go through an electron transport chain.
D. It produces ATP.
E. It produces NADPH.

17. The action spectrum of photosynthesis shows a high light absorption for violet/blue and orange/red and a low absorption for green/yellow. If we were to set up an experiment where narrow bands of unicolored light were shown on an aquatic plant such as Elodea, and we counted the number of bubbles of oxygen produced as an indicator of photosynthetic rate, how would the graph appear?
A. exactly inverted from the action spectrum with a peak for yellow/green
B. a descending line because ultra-violet has more energy than infra-red
C. just like the action spectrum with peaks at violet/blue and orange/red and a trough at yellow/green
D. There is no way to guess without actually running the experiment.
E. perfectly flat because many wavelengths are used by chlorophyll

18. The first event in the Calvin cycle is the attachment of carbon dioxide to the five-carbon RuBP molecule, which
A. occurs in the stroma of the chloroplasst
B. forms a six-carbon molecule that immediately breaks down into two three-carbon PGA molecules.
C. decreases cell carbon dioxide levels, which increases the diffusion gradient.
D. All of the choices are correct.
E. is a reaction assisted by large quantities of RuBP carboxylase enzyme.

19. Which is most closely associated with the Calvin cycle?
A. carbon dioxide production
B. carbon dioxide fixation
C. oxygen production
D. removal of electrons from water for passage through an electron transport system
E. ATP production

20. The major enzyme that catalyzes the reduction of carbon dioxide is called
A. glyceraldehyde-3-phospate (G3P).
B. PEP carboxylase (PEPcase).
C. ribulose bisphosphate carboxylase (rubisco).
D. ATPase
E. carbonic anhydrase