DNA/RNA Introduction Quiz

DNA/RNA Intro Quiz

1. Which of the following is NOT one of the bases in a DNA molecule?

a. adenine

b. cytosine

c. uracil

d. thymine

e. guanine

2. Cytosine will form a base pair only with:

a. cytosine

b. adenine

c. thymine

d. uracil

e. guanine

3. What is a nucleotide?

a. a phosphate, five-carbon sugar, and a nitrogen base

b. a group of linked amino acids

c. one half of a DNA molecule

d. a protein, a sugar, and a phosphate

e. a phosphate, a six-carbon sugar, and a nitrogen base

4. The weak bonds between complementary nitrogen bases involve:

a. RNA

b. DNA

c. Hydrogen

d. five-carbon sugars

e. sulfur

5. DNA assumes a form termed what?

a. a triple-linked chain

b. a six sided figure

c. a step ladder

d. a double helix

e. a triple helix

6. DNA may be described functionally as:

a. an enzyme

b. a source for RNA production

c. an arrangement of mRNA molecules

d. a sink for disposal of RNA

e. a protein

7. Where is the messenger RNA synthesized in a cell?

a. nucleus

b. mitochondria

c. ribosome

d. endoplasmic reticulum

e. golgi body

8. Which of the following correctly describes messenger RNA?

a. single stranded

b. uracil replaces thymine

c. many sugar to phosphate bonds occur

d. the ribose sugar has an oxygen on the #2 carbon

e. all of the above

9. Which of the following are correct types of RNA?

a. mRNA

b. qRNA

c. tRNA

d. a and c

e. all of the above

10. The directions used in protein synthesis are provided by:

a. mRNA

b. centromere

c. RNA in the ribosomes

d. tRNA

e. qRNA

11. Given the following DNA strand, which of the following is its complementary mRNA?

G G A C T G A T T

(A) C C T G A C T A A

(B) C C U G A C U A A

(C) G G A C T G A T T

(D) T T A G T C A G G

12. The sugar in RNA is _____, the sugar in DNA is _______

(A) deoxyribose, ribose

(B) ribose, deoxyribose

(C) ribose, phosphate

(D) ribose, uracil

13. A gene is:

(A) a segment of DNA that codes for a protein

(B) a set of homologous chromosomes

(C) a molecule within DNA

(D) a type of pants

14. The DNA side strands are made of alternating

(A) phosphates and sugars

(B) adenine and thymine

(C) cytosine and guanine

(D) adenine and guanine

15. Uracil always pairs with

(A) Adenine

(B) Thymine

(C) Guanine

(D) Cytosine

Genetics II Ch 12 - Take Home Quiz

1. Which refers to turning a chromosome segment around 180º and rejoining it to the original chromosome?
A. translocation
B. monosomy
C. duplication
D. deletion
E. inversion

2. Which statement is NOT true about X-linked characteristics?
A. More males than females are affected.
B. Females can be carriers of the gene without showing it.
C. If a female has the characteristic, all her sons will show it.
D. The characteristic often skips a generation, from a woman's father to her son.
E. Males can have two copies of the alleles for the trait, but females can have only one.

3. A human male has ____ chromosomes with ____ sex chromosomes.
A. 46, XY
B. 48, XY
C. 48, XX
D. 48, YY
E. 46, XX

4. Which refers to the loss of a complete chromosome?
A. translocation
B. inversion
C. monosomy
D. deletion
E. duplication

5. Generally, it is not possible to determine whether nondisjunction failed to occur in oogenesis or spermatogenesis. However, it is possible to assert that _________resulted in nondisjunction in __________.
A. XYY; spermatogenesis
B. XO; oogenesis
C. XXX; oogenesis
D. XXY; oogenesis
E. XXY; spermatogenesis

6. Which of these terms would be equivalent to 3n chromosomes?
A. trisomy
B. diploidy
C. triploidy
D. tetraploidy
E. tetrasomy

7. Which of the following is NOT true about a karyotype?
A. Banding patterns are used in pairing chromosomes.
B. Chromosome pairs are assorted by both size and shape.
C. Homologous chromosomes are paired.
D. Sex chromosomes are identified separately from autosomes.
E. Chromosome pairs are numbered from smallest to largest.

8. "Polyploid" is a term that refers to
A. having 2 sets (2N) of chromosomes.
B. None of these
C. having many expressions of the same gene.
D. having 3 or more sets of chromosomes (3N, 4N, etc)
E. having multiple sex cell available for fertilization.

9. Women with X-linked disorders always pass the genes for the disorder to ______, while men with X-linked disorders always pass the genes for the disorder to _______.
A. both their daughters and sons; only their daughters
B. both their daughters and sons; only their sons
C. their sons, their daughters
D. only their daughters; only their daughters
E. both their daughters and sons; their daughters and sons

10. Which statement is NOT true about Down syndrome?
A. It is associated with chromosomal nondisjunction in meiosis.
B. Greatly increased incidence occurs with fathers over age 35.
C. It is caused by a third copy of chromosome 21.
D. Characteristics include mental retardation and extra eyelid folds.
E. Affected individuals have a considerably shortened life expectancy.

11. Which refers to the addition of an extra segment of a chromosome?
A. monosomy
B. duplication
C. deletion
D. inversion
E. translocation

12. What kind of mutation causes trisomy 21 or Down syndrome?
A. change in the base sequence of DNA in a single gene
B. change in the number of chromosomes
C. duplication of an allele with change in the base sequence of one of the copies
D. recombination of genetic information between unpaired chromosomes
E. change in the arrangement of alleles on a chromosome

13. Which refers to the movement of a piece of one chromosome to another nonhomologous chromosome?
A. inversion
B. monosomy
C. deletion
D. translocation
E. duplication

14. If a woman is a carrier for the color-blind recessive allele and her husband is normal, what are their chances that a son will be color-blind?
A. None since he will also be just a carrier.
B. 50% since the mother is the only carrier.
C. None since the father is normal.
D. 100% because the mother has the gene.
E. 25% because the mother is a hybrid.

15. Consider the case of a lethal recessive gene located on the nonhomologous part of the human X-chromosome; it is therefore sex-linked. Its effect is to prevent the full development of the embryo, which is therefore reabsorbed at an early stage. Beginning with a female who carries this gene in a heterozygous state, what proportion of the offspring will be female?
A. one-half
B. all, because the lethal recessive gene will express itself in the absence of any genes on the short Y-arm for the XY male embryos
C. two-thirds
D. No offspring will be produced at all.
E. three-fourths

16. Which refers to the loss of a portion of a chromosome?
A. duplication
B. inversion
C. translocation
D. monosomy
E. deletion

17. When homologous chromosomes fail to separate during meiosis, this is termed
A. RFLP.
B. disjunction.
C. nondisjunction.
D. cross-over.
E. linked genes.

18. A genetic disorder (not counting disjunctions) is more likely to be common in the population if it
A. All of the choices would increase the survival of a deleterious gene.
B. is not sex-linked if recessive.
C. is recessive.
D. bestows some benefit in a heterozygous state.
E. does not manifest itself until after reproductive age has passed.

Genetics I Ch 11 - Take Home Quiz

1. Which of the statements below is/are true regarding the trait of interest in the above pedigree?
A. All of these statements are true.
B. If it is autosomal recessive, all the children of the affected daughter would be affected as well.
C. If it is X-linked dominant, the daughter of the affected son would also be affected.
D. It is likely autosomal dominant, the affected individuals would be heterozygous.
E. If it is X-linked recessive, all the children of the affected daughter would be affected.

2. According to the pedigree diagrammed above the original parents of this family tree had
A. 2 daughters and 1 son
B. None of these is correct
C. 3 daughters and 2 sons
D. 1 daughter and 2 sons
E. 2 daughters and 3 sons

3. A classical example of multiple alleles is
A. albinism in humans and animals.
B. pink flowers in heterozygous snapdragons.
C. ABO blood types in humans.
D. height in garden peas.
E. coat color spotting in cattle.

4. The water buttercup produces thin leaves underwater, but those same tissues will produce broad leaves above the water. Individuals in the 1800's (when hunger and childhood diseases were common) averaged slightly over five feet tall, but their offspring in the 1900's were substantially taller on the average. This reflects the influence of
A. gene linkage.
B. genotype having no relationship to phenotype.
C. epistasis.
D. environmental factors on the ability of genes to express themselves.
E. polygenic inheritance.

5. Which type of inheritance results in continuous variation often a bell-shaped curve–because genes at many loci are involved?
A. polygenic
B. autosomal dominant
C. sex-influenced
D. autosomal recessive
E. X-linked

6. If a human who is a tongue roller (T) and has unattached ear lobes (E) marries a person who cannot roll their tongue and has attached earlobes, could they produce an offspring that was also a non-tongue roller with attached earlobes? What would be the genotype of the first parent? the second parent?
A. yes: TTEe; ttee
B. yes; TtEe; ttee
C. unable to determine from the information given
D. yes; TtEE; ttEe
E. no; TTEE; ttee

7. The location on a chromosome where a particular gene is located is known as the:
A. diploid
B. allele
C. locus
D. autosome
E. dihybrid

8. In pea plants, the gene for round seed (R) is dominant, and wrinkled seeds (r) are recessive. The endosperm of the pea is also either starchy, a dominant gene (S), or waxy (s). What can be said of a fully heterozygous (or dihybrid) cross?
A. It is impossible to secure offspring that are homozygous for one dominant gene such as round seed and homozygous recessive for the other recessive waxy gene.
B. It is impossible to secure offspring that are homozygous for both dominant genes.
C. All of these choices are impossible combinations in a dihybrid cross.
D. It is impossible to secure offspring that are homozygous for both recessive genes.
E. All of these choices are possible combinations in a dihybrid cross.

9. A gene interaction in which a pair of recessive genes at one locus prevents expression of a dominant allele at another locus is called
A. epistasis.
B. polygenic inheritance.
C. pleiotropy.
D. complete dominance.
E. incomplete dominance.

10. An individual with blood type A marries an individual with blood type B. What blood types could their offspring exhibit?
A. AB
B. all of these are possible
C. A
D. B
E. O

11. The ability to roll the edges of the tongue upward in a U-shape has been considered to be an inherited ability. The standard assumption is that tongue-rolling is a dominant allele at a single gene locus. Which of the following would cast doubt on this assumption?
A. Behaviors are not inherited, only structures are inherited.
B. A student who can roll his tongue has a mother and father, both of whom cannot.
C. A student who cannot roll his tongue has a mother and father, both of whom can.
D. A teacher reports that after testing her class on the ability to roll their tongue, with very little effort the non-tongue-rollers can learn to also roll their tongues.
E. The non-tongue rollers who learn to roll their tongues and the student who can roll his tongue while his parents cannot are two situations that cast doubt on the heritability issue. The situation where a student cannot roll his tongue while his parents can is inconclusive.

12. A classical example of incomplete dominance is
A. coat color in rabbits.
B. height in garden peas.
C. albinism in humans and animals.
D. pink flowers in heterozygous snapdragons.
E. ABO blood groups in humans.

13. If an individual with a dominant phenotype is crossed with an individual with a recessive phenotype, 4 of their 9 offspring show the recessive phenotype. What is the genotype of the first parent?
A. AA
B. Aa
C. The answer cannot be determined from this information.
D. aa
E. AA or Aa

14. The F2 offspring of a monohybrid cross would show the genotype(s)
A. Aa and aa.
B. AA and Aa.
C. AA only.
D. Aa only.
E. AA, Aa, and aa.

15. In which kind of cross would you expect to find a ratio of 9:3:3:1 among the F2 offspring?
A. monohybrid cross
B. dihybrid cross
C. multiple allele cross
D. testcross
E. polygenic cross

16. If you had two guinea pigs of opposite sex, both homozygous, one black and one brown, but you didn't know which was the dominant characteristic, how would you find out the dominant color?
A. None of the choices are correct.
B. Mate them together, then mate their offspring to see what color the grandchildren are--the other color will be the dominant color.
C. Mate them together , then mate their offspring to see what color the grandchildren are--that will be the dominant color.
D. Mate them together and see what color the offspring are--that will be the dominant color.
E. Mate them together and see what color the offspring are--the other will be the dominant color.

17. In a pedigree chart, which is correct?
A. Offspring are represented by triangles.
B. All of these are true.
C. A line between a circle and a square represents a mating.
D. A carrier with a normal phenotype is represented by a black circle or square.
E. Circles = males; squares = females.

18. Which of the following crosses would always result in offspring that only display the dominant phenotype?
A. Tt x Tt
B. TT x TT
C. both TT x tt and TT x TT
D. TT x tt
E. Tt x Tt

19. In the use of a Punnett square for genetic results of crossing individuals
A. All of the choices are correct.
B. the results show the offspring's expected genotypes.
C. all different kinds of eggs are lined up either horizontally or vertically.
D. all different kinds of sperm are lined up either horizontally or vertically.
E. every possible allele combination is placed within the square.

20. Following the type of inheritance illustrated in this pedigree, if one of the affected children (who is heterozygous) in the second generation were to marry an unaffected spouse, what is the probability their first child will be affected?
A. 100%
B. Not enough information to tell.
C. 1 out of 4
D. 3 out of 4
E. 1 out of 2